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February 08, 2007

Comments

AnnonyMouse

Thanks Jimmy!

With this quote:
1621 In the Latin Rite the celebration of marriage between two Catholic faithful normally takes place during Holy Mass, because of the connection of all the sacraments with the Paschal mystery of Christ.....

And the Cannon Law it seems to make better sense to me. After reading the one with only the cannon law, it seemed that ANYWHERE would be OK as long as the priest Ok'd it. Which there had to be a deeper understanding to this sacrment.
It brought back a lot of "horror" marriage stories too (cannon law document).
Thanks

AnnonyMouse

Jimmy, one more thing.
The Precepts of the Catholic Chruch used to include, to obey the laws of the Church regarding marriage. In the CCC that is no longer included in the precepts. Do you know why? I was once told by a priest the reason it wasn't included is because there is a WHOLE section on marriage but I responded....these are Catholics looking for the minimal.....do you really think they are going to read that?!
Do you know why it is no longer included in the Precepts to obey the laws regarding marriage?

"Anonymous Coward"

My parish church is about to close for renovation and expansion, expected to take a year or more. Masses are being planned for the school auditorium/gymnasium. Will every marriage in the parish require a waiver from the bishop? Or can he issue a blanket waiver? Or can the gymnasium be temporarily declared a church for the purpose of these canons?

Monica

Anonymous Coward - I seriously doubt that this will be a big problem. How many brides do you know who are willing to get married in a gymnasium? I suspect they will migrate to neighboring parishes, or go to the parish of their intended.

Mike Burns

I've recently run across a comment in catholic.com in which it is asserted that canon law doesn't prohibit ordination of homosexuals. How true is that? I have also read that Pope Benedict recently reiterated the already-existing ban on homosexual ordination first instituted by Pope John XXIII (in the form of an "instruction"), and that the original ban was just simply being ignored in a lot of places---particularly N. America.

Doesn't a policy instituted by a pope have the force of canon law? Canon law and its formulation isn't an autonomous entity of its own, independent of the pontifical authority---is it?

Mike

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